Flat rate per diem question

[Techsan]

I've searched to no avail, and not sure if Finance Guy is still around but here is my question since the JTR isn't very clear (go figure).

 

Scenario 1: Let's say that I'm on a 179-day TDY in country A living off base, that turns into 183 days TDY (not including travel days). So under the flat rate per diem rules, I would receive 55% of the full rate for country A. I get that.

 

Scenario 2: Now let's say that at the beginning of this TDY I arrive in country A, spend 10 days there, then go TDY to country B for 2 days before returning to location A for the remainder of the 171 days.

 

For this scenario, my understanding is that I would be paid full per diem for the 10 days in country A, 2 days in country B, and then 75% of the full rate for the remaining 171 continuous days at country A.

 

Or would I still get paid at the 55% rate for country A since my total time there was 181 days, although it was not continuous.

 

Any help would be appreciated! This shit would be much easier to figure out if we didn't have this stupid flat rate BS.

 

Techsan

 

 

[Breckey]

The flat rate is for the specified time at each location. Each new location resets the clock.

Also in Scenario 1, depending on when you got your orders amended you would have the 75% rate since you "planned" to be there for only 179 days. Ideally you would get it amended on the 179th day and have only 4 days at 55%.

[Lord Ratner]

Close, but one change. If the duration is changed (made longer), the percentage is based on the duration from the time you are notified of the change. So if you are on a 179, and half way through they add a month, the duration starting from the time of the change is less than 179, so you still get 75%, even though the total TDY time is 209 days

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